6 Accountability Habits of Effective People, by Linda Galindo

Question: What is the most powerful personal accountability tool you can use today?
Answer: The OFF button.
Many, many people use overwhelm or over commitment as their excuse for poor work and low productivity. Getting out of overwhelm and over commitment and becoming powerful through personal accountability can be achieved through these 6 practices of effective people.
1. Effective people focus. Close all social media windows and put your smart phone in a drawer or completely silence it for 20 minutes at a time, (or longer if it suites you). Turn off all notifications. Email, Twitter, Facebook, LinkedIn, etc. You will be astounded at the quality of your work when you are just doing work. When times up, you can go social media surfing, but set the timer and get back to focus again. Don’t cheat. You’ll be tempted if you hear that ding or buzz or see the email crawler pop up with a message. Experience the focus and it will be your new addiction.
2. Effective people do one thing at a time. This is similar to the idea of focus, but it is a deeper application of the concept. Let’s say you are going to write a blog post or complete a performance evaluation. Make a commitment to do it in time and just that time. Yes, you have a million other things clamoring for your mind’s attention but you have control. By setting a timer for say, an hour, to do this one thing, your mind has permission to stay present and the quality of what you are doing will skyrocket. And, you likely will find you need less time to do it!
3. Effective people close their door. So many managers tell me, “But I want to be accessible.” You are not a babysitter that has to watch the children every minute of every day. A note on your door that says “Focusing until 3:00 pm, please come back. Enter if urgent.” will work. Don’t close your door and start surfing the net. Actually focus on one thing. Three separate hours a day spent this way will at least double your productivity.
4. Effective people know multi-tasking is a crock. There are exceptions to this, like when I am cleaning the garage and listening to a business podcast or on the treadmill and reading a book. But if I am in a meeting or on a conference call and checking my phone screen or reading a report for the next meeting so I am only half listening, multi-taking is bunk. Do organizations actually have to put a “rule” in place in meetings to put down your device and pay attention? Don’t be that person. Commit to be present.
5. Effective people know activity lowers their stress. The reason so many people have to have a lot going on is because activity lowers their stress. You are better off taking a walk around your building when you feel a need to be busy. If you want to be someone who is productive and known for your quality of work, make sure you get activity outside of work. Activity lowers your stress. If you get your activity needs met outside of work, then at work you will experience a much better ability to focus for longer stretches of time.
6. Effective people calendar the night before. I hate structure but I need it. This is true for many multi-tasking, hair-on-fire, busy executives and business owners. To create quality and productivity in your work life, always look at your next day calendar the night before. Yes, there will be interruptions and unexpected additions to your day, but having your day in mind to begin with, sets you up to prepare for productivity and prioritization. To turn on your effectiveness and accountability for producing quality work and productivity, it is essential to turn off an unprecedented amount of self-imposed distraction. Many, many people use overwhelm as the excuse for poor work and low productivity. The bottom line, use the OFF button and focus.

Importance of Asking What Instead of Why, by Dr. Tojo Thatchenkery

I want to share with you a simple technique that will make a big difference in a variety of challenging situations that you face at work. It has to do with learning the difference between the why question and the what question. Let me ask you this: what happens when someone asks you a why question? Imagine you are working on a very time-sensitive project that's due next week and your boss has called a meeting of you and your team and you've run into some unexpected delays and challenges and you're worried it might be late. Now, your boss asks you, in front of the rest of the team, "Why are you late?" What are you going to feel? You're going to feel a bit upset, you may feel angry, you will feel put on the spot, you may feel defensive, you'll try to come up with interpretations, analysis, explanation, you may even blame others, you may shift responsibility. You might say, "It's Microsoft Windows 10 not uploading properly." You may come up with all sorts of causes. Well, there is a different way of asking for information, and I call this, "The what question."
I have to tell you a story to make the case for the what question. Many, many years ago, an anthropologist went to study a culture in a remote village. He observed that a tribal chief was walking around the fire five times. He asked him, "Why are you doing it?" The anthropologist did not get a good answer. By chance, he reframed and asked a what question. He asked, "What happens when you walk around the fire?" The tribal guy said, "It produces images of God." He followed up with another what question, "What happens when the image of God is evoked?" "It produces rain." Now you know why the tribal chief was running around the fire. So the interesting thing is that, when you ask the what question, you're getting a description, you're getting a story, you're getting details, you're getting data and content. This is very important to understand because in the why question, you were getting interpretations whereas in the what questions, you were getting data. In fact, the most famous what question was asked by Albert Einstein. He asked, "What would the universe look like if I were riding on the end of a light beam at the speed of light?" You know what was the answer? It was E=MC^2, the whole Theory of Relativity came from that.
So, look at the difference between the why and the what. The why is a closed format; the what is an open format. The why is very reactive; whereas the what is proactive and generative. The why is so much focused on the causes; whereas the what is focused on the process and actions. The why is looking into the past, such as, "Why are you late?" Whereas the what is about the future. For example, let us say your boss asked you, instead of, "Why are you late," he asked a what question. Suppose he asked you, "What would it take you to complete this next week?" You'd have said, "I need the following things…" He could have asked, "What would it take us to get those things?" You would have said, "I need X, Y, Z." He would say, "Who can do this?" You start some kind of a problem solving, one what question leads to another what question, and suddenly, all of you are engaging in figuring out what needs to happen to get this project accomplished by next week. Nobody is in the why mode, you're not blaming anyone, you are in an action-oriented, future-oriented way, trying to sort things out. I guarantee you, your boss would have gotten a much better outcome had he asked the what question.
So let's see if you can practice using the what question. It's very simple. For example, think about your last couple of days at work and make a mental note of the many why questions you might have asked. Take two of them and share that with a friend or a colleague who might be sitting with you. Reflect for a minute and consider how you can reframe those two why questions into a what question. Share those two what questions with your friend or colleague. Ask your friend for some feedback regarding how good you do this. It's very hard to practice what questions initially, so it's good to get this feedback from your colleague or friend about how you did with the what question, and keep practicing.
I guarantee you, every why question can be reframed into a what question. It is hard work, the more you practice, the better you become with the what questions. You will notice the difference in other people. When you ask the what question to other people, they engage with you. When you ask the why question, they're distanced from you because they have to come up with an explanation. The what question opens the doors for you. It allows people to join you in a mutual collaborative way of problem solving. I have practiced this, I have seen other people doing it, and I can guarantee you that if you start practicing the what question, you will get the results. Remember, every why question can be reframed into a what question.

Exam : SK0-001 (Title : Server+.)

# QUESTION 1
A Customer wants to add memory to an existing server while preserving their initial investment. Which
of the following actions must be performed before purchasing memory?
A. Check memory count on POST.
B. Verify pin count of replacement memory.
C. Verify the availability of memory slot.
D. Verify compatibility with existing memory.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before the purchase you should first check if there the server has available memory slot.
The next step would be to check which memory are compatible with the existing memory.
# QUESTION 2
A file server has been optimized with the following characteristics:
• 1 GB RAM
• 400 MHz CPU
• 10/100 Ethernet NIC
• Hardware RAID subsystem
The server needs to be reconfigured as a database server. Which of the following upgrades should be
added first?
A. More RAM
B. An additional NIC
C. An additional processor
D. An additional tape drive
Answer: C
Explanation:
A single 400 MHz CPU could become a bottleneck on a database server. We should either add an additional
CPU or replace the CPU with a faster one.
A database server needs a lot of RAM, 1 GB should be sufficient.
A 10/100 Ethernet NIC should be sufficient. A database server has less network traffic compared to a file server
for example.
A tape drive is only used for recovery. It is not required since SQL Server can make backups over the network.
# QUESTION 3
The Vice President of Operations has decided that the company should be running the latest version of
the Network OS. A decision was made that the existing Network OS should be removed before the new
version is installed. A full backup has been performed. Which of the following should be done first?
A. Verify the backup
B. Format the system drive
C. Partition the data drive
D. Install the latest Network OS updates.
Answer: A
Explanation:
We must ensure that the backup is correct. If the backup is corrupt we would unable to return to the previous
state.
# QUESTION 4
All of the following need to be checked after an update to an SNMP agent EXCEPT that the
A. PUTs are enabled
B. MIBs require updating
C. traps are still configured
D. SNMP installation is still valid
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reconfiguration of SNMP agents would not change the SNMP installation.
Incorrect Answers
An SNMP agent update could have an impact on PUTs, MIBs and traps. PUTs are used in SNMP agent scripts,
management information base (MIB) files contain SNMP agent information, and traps are configured for
SNMP agents.
# QUESTION 5
A new UPS has been installed with a signal cable that connects the server to the UPS. However, the
server cannot communicate with the UPS. Which of the following is the likely cause?
A. The UPS is the wrong model.
B. The UPS batteries are not fully charged.
C. The UPS software is not properly configured.
D. The UPS is not configured to a power source.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most likely cause is that the UPS software has not been properly configured.
Incorrect Answers
A wrong model is not a likely problem, since there are standards for UPS.
The batteries do not have to be fully charged in order for the UPS to operate.
An UPS need a power source, though it is not likely that this have been overlooked.
# QUESTION 6
What is the bus length limitation of a single-ended UltraWide SCSI with four devices?
A. 1.5 meters
B. 3 meters
C. 6 meters
D. 12 meters
Answer: A
Explanation:
Single Ended Host Adapter
For UltraSCSI performance, you must adhere to the following cable length restrictions:
If you exceed these bus length restrictions, the UltraSCSI devices may operate at less
than 40 mbytes/sec. And UltraSCSI devie on the bus may experiance errors that eventually
cause it to reset and operate at 20Mbytes/sev.
# QUESTION 7
A customer has a system with two 9-GB drivers that are hardware mirrored on an Ultra SCSI RAID
controller. Using the same size drivers, they would like to plan for 63 GB of storage space. Which of the
following would offer a solution with the highest performance?
A. RAID 5 with 7 additional drives
B. RAID 5 with 12 additional drives
C. RAID 0/1 with 7 additional drives
D. RAID 0/1 with 12 additional drives
Answer: D
Explanation:
We should use RAID 0/1 combines RAID 0 (disk mirroring which gives fault tolerance) with RAID 1 (disk
striping which give highest performance). 6 additional drives could be used on each mirror. Seven -9GB drives
give a 63GB striped volume as was required.
Incorrect Answers
RAID 5 also provides fault tolerance but not as high performance as RAID 0/1.
7 additional drives in a RAID 0/1 is not enough to provide 63 GB of storage space. 12 additional drives are
needed.
# QUESTION 8
A customer asks a technician to install a new Ultra2 SCSI controller to an existing server. The new
controller will replace a Fast SCSI controller that is in the server. The only device that will be connected
is a Fast SCSI external tape drive. The customer will want to add new SCSI devices in the future.
What should the technician tell the customer?
A. The new configuration will work, however Ultra2 devices may operate at single-ended speeds.
B. The new configuration will work and Ultra2 devices will operate at Ultra speeds.
C. The new configuration will work and all devices will operate at Ultra2 speeds.
D. The new configuration will not work.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ultra2 is compatible with existing SCSI devices allowing older, non-Ultra2-capable controllers to be used with
newer, Ultra2-capable devices and vice versa.
# QUESTION 9
After a server's processor is upgraded, the server will not POST. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The BIOS was not flashed.
B. The processor is not correctly seated.
C. The jumper settings on the processor are incorrect.
D. The original cache size is different from the new cache size.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A possible cause of a failed POST test is an incorrectly seated processor.
There should, in general, be no need to flash the BIOS to upgrade a processor.
Modern processors do not have jumper settings.
The cache size of a processor would not cause the POST to stop.
# QUESTION 10
A technician is adding a PCI 2.2-compliant 64-bit, 66-MHz card to a server. Which of the following types
of slots can be used for the card?
I. 32-bit, 33 MHz PCI
II. 64-bit, 33 MHz PCI
III. 64-bit, 66 MHz PCI
A. III only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Answer: D
Explanation:
The PCI 2.2 specification allows for a 64-bit, 66-MHz compliant card to be used in a 32-bit 33Mhz slot, in a 64-
bit 33MHz slot, or in 64-bit 66MHz slot.
# QUESTION 11
A Wake-on-LAN adapter has been installed on a server. However, the server does not wake up as
expected. Which of the following should be done to resolve the problem?
A. Verify SNMP packets
B. Verify TCP/IP packets
C. Verify Magic Packets
D. Verify ACK packets
Answer: C
Explanation:
Wake On LAN (WOL) is the name for a technical development jointly created by IBM and Intel. The
technology allows "enabled" devices to be powered on remotely via a special type of network communication.
A WOL-enabled device, when powered off, will still draw a tiny amount of electricity to drive the network
interface. The interface remains in a passive, listening mode, sending nothing out on the network. To wake up
the device, a specially formed packet is sent to the network port where the device is plugged in.
This special packet, called a magic packet, carries a special "signature." When the network interface sees this
signature, it recognizes this as a wakeup call.
# QUESTION 12
As the server is powered on, POST errors are observed. How can it be determined which FRU (Field
Replacement Unit) to replace?
A. Review the Network OS logs for subsystem errors
B. Power off the server, disconnect from power, reconnect, restart.
C. Look up the error codes in the server documentation for the appropriate part to replace.
D. Contact the server manufacturer's technical support for known failing components that should be
replaced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The POST error codes have to be decoded, for example by using the server motherboard documentation.
# QUESTION 13
As part of the installation of a four-way 400 MHz server, a baseline measurement was recorded. In
addition, the latest firmware and Network OS patches were applied. Upon rebooting the server, the
drives fail to initialize. Which of the following actions will offer the best solution to this issue?
A. Replace the hard drivers.
B. Search the vendor's Website for known issues.
C. Check the Network OS README file.
D. Install the latest Network OS service patch.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The vendor's Website is the best place to find information on known problems and solutions to these problems.
# QUESTION 14
The technician receives a call reporting that a server is down. After arriving at the site, the technician
realizes the problem is beyond his technical expertise. What should the technician do in this situation?
A. Review escalation procedures and contact the responsible individual.
B. Contact a fellow technician and ask that individual to come in to help.
C. Continue working on the problem, since the solution may present itself in time.
D. Tell the client that the system will be down until the next business day.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a technician is unable to solve a problem, the problem should be escalated so that a person with more
expert knowledge can resolve the problem
# QUESTION 15
A network server will not boot properly. The server never begins the load of the Network OS and the
server technician suspects a POST error. What is the proper way to use a POST diagnostics hardware
adapter?
A. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer, and the error codes will display on the adapter.
B. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer, and the error codes will output on the default
printer.
C. Insert the card into an open bus slot, boot the computer using the supplied floppy disk, and the error
codes will be stored on disk.
D. Connect the adapter to a serial or parallel port, boot the computer, and the error codes will be stored in a
memory buffer created by the adapter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The messages, the post codes, from the POST diagnostics hardware adapter would be shown on a display on the
adapter.
# QUESTION 16
A technician is trying to determine why a remote alert failed on a server at another location. Which of the
following steps should be performed to fix the problem?
I. Reboot remote server.
II. Connect to the remote server.
III. Logon with administrator privileges.
IV. Determine that the alert criterion is configured correctly.
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D
# QUESTION 17
The hard drive in an organization's certificate authority server has failed. The drive contained the
certificate database and certificate revocation list. A replacement hard drive and the appropriate backup
tapes from the Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation are obtained. What should the server technician
do first before attempting a restore of the system?
A. Burn in the new hard drive for at least 24 hours.
B. Check the certificate authority's Website for software updates.
C. Locate the organization's server recovery plan.
D. Determine the default server configuration from the certificate authority's software guide.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The server recovery plan, if existing, would be the first to check for the service technician when an import
server has failed.
# QUESTION 18
A functional server suddenly stops responding to users. Upon a cold reboot of the server, the screen is
blank. However, the hard drive and CD-ROM spin up normally. What is most likely causing the
problem?
A. There is a virus problem.
B. There is an AC power problem.
C. There is a hardware problem.
D. There is a software problem.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The behavior could be caused by a virus, a hardware problem, or a software problem. The most common cause
of this is a software problem though.
# QUESTION 19
The previous month's UPS activity log that is maintained for a server is reviewed. It shows power to the
server is repeatedly being lost for about 10 minutes at approximately the same time every Friday night.
All system hardware and software diagnostic tests have been unable to locate the cause of the problem.
Who should be contacted regarding the problem?
A. The UPS manufacturer.
B. The department manager.
C. The building maintenance foreman.
D. The company's outside server consultants.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A building maintenance foreman seems the most likely cause of the problem. He probably shut down some
system at the same time each Friday night.
It seems very unlikely that the department manager or the consultants would work Friday night, or that UPS
manufacturer would schedule the UPS to perform a specific reoccurring activity.
# QUESTION 20
The company server must be shut down for an upgrade. Which of the following sequences is the best
practice when shutting down the server?
A. Perform backup, notify users before shutdown, then shut down server and peripherals together.
B. Perform backup, notify users before shutdown, shut down server, then shut down the peripherals.
C. Notify users before shutdown, shut down applications, then shut down peripherals, and then shut down
server.
D. Have all users log off the server, shut down all applications, backup the server, shut down the server,
then shut down the peripherals.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before shutting down the server we should have all users to log off, not just notify them, and shut down all
applications. We should then backup the server, shut down the server and finally shut down all peripherals.
# QUESTION 21
The Human Resources Department added 50 new users to the network. All of them are using the same
application located on the main server in the data center. During peak usage hours the response of the
application has slowed to an unacceptable level.
The server is configured with two CPUs, 1GB of memory, a 100 GB SCSI disk array, and one Fast
Ethernet NIC. The performance baselines taken during peak hours are:
Historic Current
Where is the bottleneck most likely located and how can it be resolved?
A. Memory is the bottleneck. More RAM needs to be installed.
B. CPUs are the bottleneck. Faster CPUs need to be installed.
C. The network is the bottleneck. Replace the hub with a switch.
D. The disk I/O is the bottleneck. Add an additional SCSI controller.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
100 page faults per second indicate a memory problem. Microsoft gives 20 pages/sec or less as acceptable.
# QUESTION 22
A server administrator receives an application-specific error message while logged onto a remote server.
A review of the remote server's event logs found no reference to the error. The remote application log
files also do no mention the specific error.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the technician to take next?
A. Examine the Network OS documentation.
B. Examine the local application event logs.
C. Examine the remove server vendor's support Website.
D. Notify the remote server users that the server must be rebooted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
It seems like that error was initiated on the local computer as nothing indicates an error on the server. We
should therefore check the local event log.
# QUESTION 23
A third-party RAID card has been upgraded to the latest drivers. Since the upgrade, when a cold boot is
performed, the connected hard drives are correctly discovered during POST and will boot after a power
down, but not after a warm boot of the server. An identical card gives the same results. Which of the
following sources of information would be most useful in resolving this problem?
A. The Network OS vendor's HCL
B. The Network OS vendor's Website
C. The server vendor's Website
D. The adapter vendor's Website
Answer: D
Explanation:
This seems to a software problem since the network adapter works when the OS is cold booted, but not when
you warm booted. The information concerning this problem could possibly be found on the Network OS
Website, the server vendor's website, or the adapter vendor's website. Most information on the adapter would
most likely be found on the adapter vendor's Website.
# QUESTION 24
In the event of a single-drive failure of an array, which of the following should be the first step to
recovery?
A. Break the mirror
B. Restore from backup
C. Determine the RAID level
D. Replace the failed drive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before starting the recovery of the array we should determine the RAID level. Then we will know if we should
break the mirror (RAID 1), or replaced the failed drive.
# QUESTION 25
When files on an NTFS partition on a new server were configured, an error occurs and the server will no
longer boot. Which software is required to recover from the failure and continue configuration?
A. Novell NetWare CD-ROM
B. Unix Boot/Root diskette(s)
C. IBM OS/2 Startup disk and Installation disk
D. ERD and/or installation disks with CD-ROM
Answer: D
Explanation:
NTFS is only used on Windows NT/2000/XP systems. These systems can be restored by use of the installation
# QUESTION 26
Some of the users on a customer's network are complaining that they cannot access some servers. Which
of the following would be LEAST appropriate question to ask upon arriving onsite?
A. Which servers are not available?
B. When were the servers last rebooted?
C. Which users are unable to access the server?
D. Are any users able to access the unavailable servers?
Answer: B
Explanation:
We should focus at the problem at hand: some users cannot access some servers. The question of when the
servers were last rebooted is not so relevant.
# QUESTION 27
Users complain that around 3:00 PM each workday, the company's email server operates slowly. What
should be done first to determine the cause of the slowdown?
A. Check the pagefile size.
B. Add more RAM to the server and do a new baseline.
C. Do a network trace to determine any issues with the network.
D. Check logs to determine when maintenance programs are scheduled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the disturbance reoccurs at exactly the same time of the day, it seems that some scheduled task, possibly a
maintenance program, is the cause of the problem.
# QUESTION 28
A technician is troubleshooting a failed server that cannot connect to the LAN. There are lights on the
network card and server that indicate activity. The technician replaced the network cable, and used
assorted Network OS vendor, and third-party diagnostic tools, but the server still fails to connect
properly. Which of the following is the best source of assistance to help resolve the problem?
A. IT manager
B. IS help desk
C. Network administrator
D. Disaster recovery team
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network adapter is working, but it seems likely that the server network properties or the network protocol
has been misconfigured. The network administrator would know how the server should be configured for this
particular network.
# QUESTION 29
A client has called to company that their server hums or buzzes. Which of the following is LEAST likely
to be the problem?
A. CPU fan
B. RAID card
C. Hard drive
D. Power supply
Answer: B
Explanation:
A RAID card does not have any FAN so it would not hum or buzz.
# QUESTION 30
Users report that the intranet database is slow to respond during peak use times. The database server is
on a small 150-user network and is configured with dual processors, 512 MB RAM and a hardwarecontrolled
RAID 5 array with three drivers. The server also provides DNS and DHCP services for the
intranet. Which of the following changes can be made to help improve server performance?
I. Set process affinity
II. Add a hard drive to the RAID 5 array
III. Move the page file to another partition on the RAID 5 array
IV. Move the DNS and DHCP services to another server
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Processor affinity can be used to enable the database server service to exclusively use one processor. This
would improve performance.
Adding a hard drive to the RAID 5 array would improve disk access since three drives containing data (one
contains the parity bit), instead of two, could be read in parallel.
Removing any network services from the server would improve the performance of the remaining services.
Incorrect Answer
Move the page file on the RAID 5 array would not change the performance. The OS uses the RAID 5 array as a
single drive.
# QUESTION 31
An administrator using a Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) backup rotation needs to restore the system to
the state it was in two months previously. How many tape sets will be required to perform this operation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
You use the single tape set from two months ago to restore the system state.
# QUESTION 32
Without bringing the server down, which of the following is the first step in removing a NIC that is in a
A. Reload the NIC driver
B. Power off the PCI slot
C. Unload the TCP/IP stack.
D. Disconnect the Wake-on-LAN cable from the NIC.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Before removing the NIC we should power off the PCI slot.
There is no need to reload the NIC driver or unload the TCP/IP stack.
# QUESTION 33
A server is required to recover after a single disk failure. Which of the following solutions will provide
the required level of fault tolerance?
I. RAID 0
II. RAID 1
III. RAID 3
IV. RAID 5
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D
Explanation:
RAID 1, RAID 3, and RAID 5 can recover from a single disk failure without any data loss.
RAID 0 has no fault tolerance. Data would have to be restored from tape.
# QUESTION 34
A failure occurred while a full backup from a tape set was being restored to a server. During a second
attempt, the restore failed at the same point. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the
failure?
A. One of the tapes has failed
B. The tape backup unit is dirty
C. The tape drive malfunctioning
D. All tapes in the backup set are corrupt
Answer: A
Explanation:
Since the failure occur at the same point it seems likely that the backup media, one of the tapes, has failed.
# QUESTION 35
Which of the following is the most important element of an effective disaster recovery plan?
A. A clear plan for reducing the effects of a disaster.
B. Adequate personnel to implement the disaster recover plan.
C. A clear and concise disaster recovery plan stored in hard copy.
D. A well-documented list of specific vendors used by the company.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It always starts with having a concise disaster recovery plan as you cannot count on having the right personnel
to implement it.
Incorrect answers:
The final step in a good disaster recovery plan is training. You need to train your personnel in what the plan is,
how it is executed, and how it needs to be maintained. Training is perhaps the most critical yet most neglected
task. It helps ensure that new risks and solutions are put into the plan and that everyone knows what is expected
when a disaster occurs.
# QUESTION 36
Which of the following types of backup media is recommended to maximize storage on a 24 GB DAT
drive?
A. DDS-1
B. DDS-2
C. DDS-3
D. DDS-24
Answer: C
Explanation:
Note: DAT stands for Digital Audio Tape, an audio recording technology based on 4mm wide tape in a helical
scan recorder. DDS - Digital Data Storage - was developed from DAT concepts to store computer data with
high data density and high reliability. However, many people continued to call DDS drives "DAT drives," and
the name is still with us today.
# QUESTION 37
Disaster recovery plans should be prepared at what stage of a server installation?
A. Before deployment
B. During the annual budge period
C. After the server is successfully installed and configured
D. Immediately upon symptoms of problems developing with the backup system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Making a disaster recovery plan before deployment seems prudent. You should have a disaster recovery plan in
place before the server installation as part of your initial request for server hardware must take into account any
extra devices to implement the plan like extra tape drives, disk controllers etc.
# QUESTION 38
During a test of the disaster recovery plan, it was determined that some servers restored with other
servers' data. Which of the following suggestions is most likely to improve disaster recovery in the
future?
A. Implement a differential backup strategy.
B. Maintain a printed report with tape backups.
C. Implement a media rotation scheme for offsite tapes.
D. Create a database that contains the backup logs stored on an incremental server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Printed instructions could help to avoid tapes from being restored incorrectly.
# QUESTION 39
In addition to backup tapes, which of the following should be stored offsite to help facilitate the recovery
of a server in the event of a disaster?
I. Blank backup tapes
II. Duplicate tape drives and cables
III. Network OS installation CD-ROMs
IV. Backup software and drivers
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Duplicate hardware, such as tape drives and cables, OS installation media, and backup software and drivers
would ensure that the backup media could be restored. It eliminates a single point of failure in the recovery
process.
# QUESTION 40
When a new disaster recovery plan is reviewed, which of the following should be done first?
A. Test the existing plan.
B. Identify critical resources at the department level.
C. Determine the preventive measures to be taken to minimize risks.
D. Assess the possible amount of down time that could be experienced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
We are still reviewing the plan, so there shouldn't be any hardware or equipments to test. Even if there are
equipments in place, reviewing the plan are paperwork job, so we need to analyse first, once finished from the
plan we can do the test.
# QUESTION 41
A company has hired an installation service company to install a server. The SCSI devices are configured
to use the same SCSI controller. The installation appeared to be successful. After six hours, the server's
SCSI devices are randomly inaccessible. A reboot temporarily resolves the issue.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The devices were not properly terminated.
B. The system's BIOS was not upgraded prior to installation.
C. The SCSI adapter is not properly seated in the PCI slot.
D. The SCSI adapter firmware was not upgraded prior to installation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SCSI trunks need to be terminated. If it is not terminated it could cause the behavior above.
If a BIOS upgrade would be required, the SCSI adapter not properly seated in the PCI slot, or the SCSI adapter
firmware required update, then SCSI adapter would not work for six hours.
# QUESTION 42
A technician is installing the Network OS on a fax server after conducting a pre-installation survey. As
part of the plan, the technician performed the following steps:
• Verified the hardware requirements
• Checked the hardware compatibility
• Installed the operating system
• Applied the most current Network OS updates
All items from the plan performed correctly by the technician. The installation proceeds normally but
upon testing, it is discovered that the NIC is not functioning. The technician verifies that the cable is
connected properly, and that the link light is on. Which of the following should have been included in the
pre-installation plan?
A. Flashing the adapter BIOS
B. Applying fixes beyond those installed
C. Getting the latest drivers from the manufacturer
D. Verifying the NIC's Wake-ON-LAN hardware compatibility
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network adapter is physically in order, but the OS has not been configured with network adapter drivers
that work. The latest drivers must be acquired.
# QUESTION 43
A company's main server uses an Ultra2-compatible controller with six Ultra2-compatible devices
correctly installed and terminated. The technician is required to install and configured two Ultra3
devices. Which of the following is the most likely result?
A. The new devices will work at Ultra2 speeds after they are configured.
B. The Ultra2 controller will not allow the new devices to be installed.
C. The Ultra3 devices are not compatible with the Ultra2 controller and require an adapter.
D. All devices will function correctly after the cable length is reduced to include the new devices.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ultra3 devices are down-compatible with Ultra2 controllers. The Ultra3 devices would work at Ultra2 speeds.
# QUESTION 44
Which of the following factors must be considered when deciding which UPS to install?
A. Maximum load
B. Processor load
C. Primary transformer output
D. Acceptable downtime
Answer: D
Explanation:
The acceptable downtime is the most crucial factor when deciding which UPS to use.
# QUESTION 45
When the location of a server is planned, the power source should be checked for which of the following?
I. AC Voltage
II. DC Voltage
III. Amperage
IV. Ground
A. I and IV only
B. II and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AC voltage (not DC voltage), the amperage, and the ground should be checked when deciding the
placement of the server.
# QUESTION 46
A technician must perform a pre-installation check prior to installing a new server that required
downloading the most recent BIOS and firmware. What is the best resource for acquiring the BIOS and
firmware?
A. The vendor's Website
B. The vendor's UDP site
C. A list server resource
D. The Network OS Website
Answer: A
Explanation:
The motherboard manufacturer, the vendor, should have the most recent BIOS and firmware at their Website.
# QUESTION 47
Which of the following is the best place to confirm current hardware compatibility with Network OS's
HCL?
A. Hardware documentation
B. Website for the Network OS
C. Network OS installation media
D. Hardware compatibility checking utility
Answer: B
Explanation:
The OS manufacturer compiles a Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). This can be acquired from the web site.
# QUESTION 48
A customer has requested a server with a SCSI RAID 5 array. When the equipment arrived, the
technician notes are the SCSI RAID card, cables, and three 40-pin hard drives have been delivered.
Which of the following should the technician indicate to the administrator?
A. All required equipment has arrived.
B. One more hard drive will be needed.
C. The wrong hard drives were delivered.
D. The wrong card and cables were delivered.
Answer: C
# QUESTION 49
A server technician must move a company's two loaded 42U racks to a new location in the building next
door. Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this move?
A. Load the rack onto a wheeled trolley and move the rack to the new location.
B. Lower the wheels on the rack, raise the rack feet and move the racks to the new location.
C. Remove all equipment from the rack and move the racks and equipment to the new location.
D. Unload enough heavy equipment from the rack to be easily moved and move the racks to the new
location.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It would be safer to move the racks and the equipment separately.
# QUESTION 50
During POST, the following message appears:
"2 logical drives found".
There are four SCSI hard drives in the server attached to a single RAID controller. None of the drives is
configured as a JBOD.
Which of the following most likely explains this message?
A. Two of the drives have failed.
B. The drives are not initializing.
C. The drive controller is misconfigured.
D. The drives are configured in two separate arrays.
Answer: D
Explanation:
All drives most configured as a single array.
# QUESTION 51
During the check of all equipment, a technician notices that the installation plan requires Network
Adapter Fault Tolerance. The server that was received only has one network adapter. Which of the
following procedures will provide the maximum level of Network Adapter Fault Tolerance?
A. Add an additional router
B. Add an additional network adapter
C. Replace adapter with a multiprotocol adapter
D. Replace adapter with a multiport network adapter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Two network adapters would provide the best fault tolerance.
# QUESTION 52
The only free port on a customer's hub (Hub-1) is the uplink port. The customer purchases an additional
12-port hub (Hub-2) and would like to connect the two hubs. Which of the following cable/port
combinations should be used?
A. Straight cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 uplink port.
B. Straight cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 regular port.
C. Crossover cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 uplink port.
D. Crossover cable. Hub-1 uplink port to Hub-2 regular port.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The uplink port of Hub-1 should be connected to a regular port on Hub-2. A straight cable should be used.
# QUESTION 53
A customer asked for 83 hard drives to be used by all four of their database servers. Which technology
would best achieve this configuration?
A. SCSI
B. IEEE-1394
C. Ultra DMA
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: D
Explanation:
We need to cluster the hard drives so that they can be used by all four database servers. Only the SCSI and
Fibre channel technology should be considered. Windows 2000 Clustering services, as an example, only
supports SCSI and Fibre channel hard drives in a cluster.
To support 83 hard drives we should use Fibre channel, since a single Fibre channel supports up to 126 devices.
Note: Fibre Channel is a high performance interface designed to bring speed and flexibility to multiple disc
drive storage systems.
Incorrect answers
The SCSI interface would be inadequate with as many as 83 hard drives. SCSI wide can support only 15
devices.
ULTRA DMA is an IDE standard. IDE drives are not ordinarily used to cluster hard drives. Only two IDE
devices can be used on a single IDE channel. By default, a computer has only two IDE channels.
IEEE-1394 (firewire) can support up to 63 devices. It would not, however, be an appropriate solution for hard
drives for database servers. IEEE is typically used for external hard drives. IEE-1394 is comparatively slow
with a maximum speed of 400 megabits/s.
Reference:
Seagate knowledge base, Fibre Channel
MCSE Training kit (70-223) Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Clustering Services, Configuring the Shared
Storage Device, page 44.
Microsoft Article: IEEE 1394: The Time is Right for This Bus
# QUESTION 54
After a new server was installed, a large number of errors occurred during in-page operations. The
technician noticed that the memory was not correct for the new server. Which of the following steps did
the installing technician neglect to perform?
A. Verification of virtual memory capacity.
B. Verification of pre-installation plan
C. Confirmation of fast page mode capability
D. Use of single, rather than dual, in-line memory modules.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The pre-installation plan should have included a step for checking the compatibility of the memory of the new
server.
# QUESTION 55
A server room contains 15 servers, a 16-port hub, and a patch panel. All of the equipment is on four
folding tables. Each server has its own monitor, keyboard, and mouse. All cables are routed behind the
tables and around the perimeter of the room. Which of the following recommendations should be made
for improving the server room?
I. Install a KVM (Keyboard Video Monitor) switch
II. Install a network switch
III. Install a set of server racks
IV. Improve cable routing
A. I and II only
B. III and IV only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: D
Explanation:
With a KVM switch we only need a single monitor, keyboard and mouse, not a separate set for each server.
This would safe space and resources.
Server racks make better use of the space.
Cable routing should be improved. The cables should be routed behind tables and around the perimeter of the
room.
Incorrect answer
A network switch could improve network performance, but could not be considered an improvement for the
server room.
# QUESTION 56
Which of the following is the LEAST effective method for restricting physical access to servers?
A. Locking the server cabinet
B. Requiring complex server passwords
C. Using biometric identification-based access locks
D. Installing a monitored alarm system on the server room
Answer: B
Explanation:
Server password would not restrict physical access to the server.
# QUESTION 57
Which of the following is NOT usually a server room environmental issue?
A. Noise
B. Rodents
C. Temperature
D. Fire suppression system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rodents are usually not considered a server room environmental issue.
# QUESTION 58
A business owner wants a recommendation on who should receive access to secure server rooms. Which
of the following is LEAST likely to be recommended for having access to server rooms?
A. Users
B. System administrators
C. Data entry supervisors
D. Database administrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
Users should not have access to the server room.
# QUESTION 59
What is the main benefit of using backup tools supplies by the Network OS vendor?
A. Speed of operation
B. Backup media availability
C. Compatibility with operating system
D. Advanced features over third party programs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Network OS vendor Backup tools are often integrated directly into the operating system. The same vendor
should guarantee compatibility.
# QUESTION 60
A server technician is verifying a new network configuration on a UNIX server and types IPCONFIG at
the prompt. Nothing happens. Which of the following commands should have been used to accomplish
this?
A. CONFIG
B. INETCFG
C. IFCONFIG
D. WINIPCFG
Answer: C
Explanation:
UNIX and LINUX use the IFCONFIG command.
# QUESTION 61
Which of the following should be documented for future reference when troubleshooting a hardware
configuration?
I. The initial configuration
II. Repairs made to the system
III. Monthly password changes
IV. Backup procedures
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, and III only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Only hardware related issues like initial configuration and repairs to the system should be documented for
hardware troubleshooting purposes.
Password changes and backup procedures would not affect the hardware.
# QUESTION 62
When a multi-homed server is installed, it is sometimes necessary to block TCP/IP traffic between each
subnet. Which of the following actions will accomplish this?
A. Add an SNMP trap
B. Disable IP forwarding
C. Remove IPX and NetBEUI
D. Put the cards on the same subnet but use different IP addresses.
Answer: B
# QUESTION 63
Which of the following features of a network printer will LEAST affect performance?
A. Internal RAM
B. Network protocol
C. Print server
D. Connection interface
Answer: B?
Explanation:
The network protocol would least affect the performance of a network printer.
The RAM would be affect print spooling. The performance of the print server would affect print speed. The
connection interface would also influence the speed of the printer.
# QUESTION 64
Which RAID level best provides protection when either two disks fail simultaneously, or when a second
disk fails during the reconstruction from the first disk failure?
A. RAID 0/1
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID 0/1 is combination of RAID 0 (disk striping) and RAID 1 (disk mirroring). Each mirror consists of a
striped volume of disks. It could handle failure of two disks.
# QUESTION 65
Within a printer pools, print devices can have which of the following characteristics?
I. Be on the same server
II. Use the same IP address
III. Have the same make and model
IV. Use the same print drivers
A. I and IV only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Printer pooling must use printers connected to a single server. The print devices must use the same print driver.
Incorrect answers
The print devices cannot have the same IP address.
The print devices are often of the same make and model, but it is not a requirement. The must use the same print
driver however.
# QUESTION 66
A technician is configuring a new server CTIA45 in the "comptia.org" domain using the IP address of
10.10.10.50 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway address of 10.10.10.1. The technician is
unable to ping the other servers by the IP address. Which two of the following are possible causes and
solutions?
I. The other servers are on the same segment, but using a different subnet mask. Correct the subnet mask
by making it match the other servers.
II. The DNS hostname entered into the new server is incorrect. Use a different hostname.
III. The other servers are on a separate segment and the gateway address is incorrect. Correct the gateway
address.
IV. The other servers have DNS entries, but the new server does not. Add a new entry to the BIND host file
A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and III
D. II and IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
The client could have an incorrect mask or an incorrect default gateway (or an incorrect IP address).
Since the ping attempts does not use host names there is no name resolution problem. The problem is not DNS
related.
# QUESTION 67
A company experienced a drive failure on one of its email servers and lost all of the data. The company
decided to modify the RAID solution on all of its email servers. The servers are currently using RAID 0
on a set of six disk drives. The new solution will of RAID 5 on a set of six disk drives.
Which of the following is most likely to result from the new solution?
A. The solution will create redundancy
B. The solution will not create redundancy.
C. The solution will create redundancy and improve disk reads only.
D. The solution will create redundancy and improve disk read/writes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
write performance compared to a RAID 0 (disk striping).
# QUESTION 68
The Network OS on a server has recently been updated. Some of the hardware on the system is no longer
operating. Which of the following should be done to fix the problem?
A. Reinstall the old Network OS
B. Replace the hardware in question.
C. Test the hardware on another system.
D. Check for drivers specific to the new Network OS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To solve the problem, to make the hardware work on the new OS, we should check for the latest device drivers
for the new Network OS.
# QUESTION 69
When the software on the "/" file system of a new server was configured, an error occurs and the server
will no longer boot. Which software is required to recover from the failure and continue configuration?
A. Novell NetWare CD-ROM
B. Unix Boot diskette(s)
C. IBM OS/2 Startup disk and installation disk.
D. ERD and/or installation disks with CD-ROM
Answer: B
Explanation:
The root directory of the UNIX file system is denoted "/". The entire system appears to be one contiguous file
system, starting from the root directory "/".
# QUESTION 70
A technician has created an array composed of four 9-GB hard drives. Two weeks later, the server is
working fine; however, the customer calls to complain that the system only recognizes 27 GB of disk
space. What would best explain the situation?
A. The customer is running RAID 5.
B. One of the hard drives has failed.
C. One of the logical drives has failed.
D. The customer is running RAID 5 with a hot spare.
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID-5 uses one disk for parity. In a four-disk RAID-5 configuration only three disks would be available for
data.
# QUESTION 71
During initial installation of a Network OS on a server, the technician configures OEM SCSI and NIC
drivers. After completing the installation, the latest Network OS patch is applied. During the installation
of the patch, the technician is prompted to overwrite newer files several times. He does as prompted.
When rebooting, the system halts. Which of the following could have prevented this problem?
I. Reinstalling the SCSI and NIC drivers after the patch
II. Not overwriting newer files
III. Replacing all overwritten files before rebooting
IV. Upgrading OEM drivers from the Web before rebooting
A. III and IV only
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
The OS patch overwrites the OEM SCSI and NIC drivers. We could avoid this problem by:
• reinstalling the SCSI and NIC drivers after the patch was applied. (I)
• Not overwriting never files. (II)
• Upgrading OEM drivers before rebooting.
We should replace all overwritten files before rebooting since that would nullify the OS patch.
# QUESTION 72
When should a new BIOS version be implemented on an existing server?
A. After the BIOS data expires
B. When functionality will be affected
C. Whenever a new version becomes available
D. Within one year of purchasing the server
Answer: B
Explanation:
A new BIOS version should only be applied to the server when it is required. It should only be installed if the
functionality of the server requires a BIOS upgrade.
# QUESTION 73
A company wants to establish measurements and performance checks. The technician recommends that
the company start comparing the server baselines to current server performance. Which of the following
is the best time to be considered for this analysis?
A. During non-business hours
B. During server-backup periods
C. During planned maintenance periods
D. During average network utilization
Answer: D
Explanation:
The baseline should be established during average network utilization.
# QUESTION 74
The server is set to perform a full data backup to a single tape every Friday, and a differential backup
Monday through Thursday. Each backup is overwritten to a different tape. Four tape sets are
maintained. If the system requires full restoration on Wednesday before the daily backup. How many
tapes will be used to restore?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
First we must restore the full backup from Friday, then we only need to apply the latest differential backup since
a differential backup includes all changes made since the last full backup.
# QUESTION 75
Where are SNMP thresholds set?
A. ARP Table
B. SNMP monitor
C. SNMP service layer
D. Vendor-provided MIB file
Answer: D
Explanation:
SNMP thresholds are set in vendor-provided MIB files.
Note: The job of communicating the meaning of the parameters exposed via SNMP is assigned to a file known
as a management information base (MIB). This file contains detailed information about the information exposed
by a device or agent and a description of what the exposed information means. MIBs are simple text files based
on the Abstract Syntax Notation (ASN).
# QUESTION 76
Which of the following should be done to ensure the redundant hardware components will be functional
in the event of a failure?
A. Simulate a hardware failure.
B. Check the system and health logs for the appropriate systems.
C. Remove each redundant component and test them in a test server.
D. Remove each component and test them individually with a multimeter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The redundant components should be tested in order to ensure that they would be functional in the event of
failure. The most realistic test would be to simulate a hardware failure and check if the redundant hardware will
work.
# QUESTION 77
A drive in a RAID 5 array has failed. The administrator was not aware of this issue. Users complained
about server access being slow. What is the most efficient method of alerting the administrator about the
drive failure?
A. Enable event logs
B. Configure remote notification
C. Schedule daily hardware visual checks
D. Enable Network OS alerts on drive enclosure
Answer: D
Explanation:
We should make sure that the administrator should be notified one disk in the RAID-5 array has failed. This
will be established by enabling the Network OS alerts on drive enclosure.
Note: The vendor-supplied software will be able to monitor the drive cabinet and report on failures, such as
power supply or drive failures. The information provided by the drive cabinet's monitoring software is not
otherwise available to the server until a failure occurs. This early warning is important if you have established a
RAID array for fault tolerance, because the array is still susceptible to a drive enclosure failure if more than one
of the drives in the array is located in the enclosure.
Incorrect answers
Event logs would not immediately notify the administrator of the problem. He would have to check the log files
on a regular basis.
Remote notification would not inform the administrator of a failure of disk in a RAID-5 array. The OS would
only be able to detect if the RAID-5 disk fails. We must use the monitor software in the Drive Cabinet.
Daily hardware checks would not minimize administrative effort. A more automatic approach is preferred.
Reference: Server+ Training kit, Installing a Drive Cabinet
# QUESTION 78
The IT department is responsible for maintaining the company's 25 Web servers. It was determined that
two additional Web servers of the same make and model were needed to provide adequate performance.
Which of the following actions must be taken to ensure that the new servers are performing as expected?
A. Download and install the most recent Network OS patches.
B. Perform a baseline and compare the two new servers to each other.
C. Download and install the most recent BIOS and firmware on the new servers.
D. Perform a baseline and compare it to the baselines of previous server installs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
By comparing the baseline of the new servers with the baseline of existing web servers we can easily ensure
that the new servers has the same performance.
# QUESTION 79
A technician performs daily backups. The backup solution contains a verification tool for every backup.
A file server experienced catastrophic failure. Recovery attempts failed. Which of the following can be
done to minimize the risk of this happening again?
A. Install a UPS.
B. Replace the verification tool.
C. Develop a plan to test backups.
D. Install vendor patches for the verification tool.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is not enough to verify backups. The backups should be tested as well.
# QUESTION 80
Which of the following connectors are used on SCSI cables?
I. 68-pin VHDCI.
II. 36-pin Centronics
III. 50-pin Centronics
IV. 68-pin High Density
A. I and III only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.
Answer: D
Explanation:
VHDCI, Sometimes called SCSI-5. Very popular in RAID cards
68-pin High Density
Centronics C50:
Incorrect Answer:
36-pin Centronics is a printer interface, not a SCSI interface.
# QUESTION 81
A customer's file server is connected to three external storage enclosures. After a new UPS is installed,
users complain that they are unable to access their private storage, but they can access public storage.
Which of the following most likely caused this problem?
A. The UPS is not working.
B. File sharing was disabled.
C. The server was powered on before all of the external storage enclosures.
D. Data was corrupted during the installation of the UPS causing missing files.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The external storage enclosures must be powered on first. This will enable the Server to detect them when the
OS boots.
# QUESTION 82
A company's server technician has installed an external tape device. The drive is connected to the same
channel on the SCSI adapter as an internal drive, and termination on the drive is enabled. Upon
rebooting, the server does not recognize the tape device. Which of the following is the most likely cause of
this failure?
A. Termination on the SCSI adapter was not disabled.
B. Termination on the tape device was not disabled.
C. Termination on the internal drive was not disabled.
D. A SCSI adapter cannot support both internal and external devices.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The SCSI channel is already terminated twice. Once on the adapter and once on the internal drive. We must
disable termination on the external tape device. We cannot have three terminations.

Increase Your Communication Clarity, by Christine Comaford